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Which built-in dashboard would be the best option for an executive, if they were looking for the Mean Time to Resolution (MTTR) metric?
A. Security Manager Dashboard
B. Data Ingestion Dashboard
C. Security Admin Dashboard
D. Incident Management Dashboard
Answer: A

Which of the following represents the correct relation of alerts to incidents?
A. Only alerts with the same host are grouped together into one Incident in a given time frame.
B. Alerts that occur within a three hour time frame are grouped together into one Incident.
C. Alerts with same causality chains that occur within a given time frame are grouped together into an Incident.
D. Every alert creates a new Incident.
Answer: A

Which of the following best defines the Windows Registry as used by the Cortex XDRagent?
A. a hierarchical database that stores settings for the operating system and for applications
B. a system of files used by the operating system to commit memory that exceeds the available hardware resources. Also known as the “swap”
C. a central system, available via the internet, for registering officially licensed versions of software to prove ownership
D. a ledger for maintaining accurate and up-to-date information on total disk usage and disk space remaining available to the operating system
Answer: A

When selecting multiple Incidents at a time, what options are available from the menu when a user right-clicks the incidents? (Choose two.)
A. Assign incidents to an analyst in bulk.
B. Change the status of multiple incidents.
C. Investigate several Incidents at once.
D. Delete the selected Incidents.
Answer: A,B

If you have an isolated network that is prevented from connecting to the Cortex Data Lake, which type of Broker VM setup can you use to facilitate the communication?
A. Broker VM Pathfinder
B. Local Agent Proxy
C. Local Agent Installer and Content Caching
D. Broker VM Syslog Collector
Answer: C

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Which two statements are correct when @SpringBootApplication is annotated on a class? (Choose two.)
A. It causes Spring Boot to enable auto-configuration by default.
B. Component scanning will start from the package of the class.
C. All other annotations on the class will be ignored.
D. Methods in the class annotated with @Bean will be ignored.
E. A separate ApplicationContext will be created for each class annotated with @SpringBootApplication.
Answer: A,E

Which following statements are true about Spring Data? (Choose two.)
A. Spring Data implementations exist for many data storage types, such as MongoDB, Neo4j, and Redis.
B. Spring Data works by applying the JPA annotations to data stores such as MongoDB, Neo4j, and Redis.
C. Spring Data can greatly reduce the amount of “boilerplate” code typically needed for data access.
D. Spring Data is specifically designed for JPA, JDBC, and relational database access only.
E. Spring Data cannot be used together with Spring MVC.
Answer: C,D

Which strategy is correct for configuring Spring Security to intercept particular URLs? (Choose the best answer.)
A. The URLs can be specified via configuration (using authorizeRequests () and request matchers), with the most specific rule first and the least specific last.
B. Spring Security can obtain URLs from Spring MVC controllers, the Spring Security configuration just needs a reference to the controller to be protected.
C. The URLs are specified in a special properties file, used by Spring Security.
D. The URLs can be specified via configuration (using authorizeRequests () and request matchers), with the least specific rule first and the most specific last.
Answer: A

Which dependency enables an automatic restart of the application as code is changed during development of a Spring boot configuration on a web application? (Choose the best answer.)
A. spring-boot-devtools
B. spring-boot-initializr
C. spring-boot-starter-devtools
D. spring-boot-restart
Answer: A

Which two statements are correct regarding the Actuator info endpoint? (Choose two.)
A. It provides configuration options through which only an authenticated user can display application information.
B. It is not enabled by default.
C. It can be used to display arbitrary application information.
D. It can be used to change a property value on a running application.
E. Typically it is used to display build or source control information.
Answer: B,C

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An administrator has moved FortiGate A from the root ADOM to ADOM1. Which two statements are true regarding logs? (Choose two.)
A. Analytics logs will be moved to ADOM1 from the root ADOM automatically.
B. Archived logs will be moved to ADOM1 from the root ADOM automatically.
C. Logs will be presented in both ADOMs immediately after the move.
D. Analytics logs will be moved to ADOM1 from the root ADOM after you rebuild the ADOM1 SQL database.
Answer: B,C

FortiAnalyzer centralizes which functions? (Choose three)
A. Network analysis
B. Graphical reporting
C. Content archiving / data mining
D. Vulnerability assessment
E. Security log analysis / forensics
Answer: B,C,E

By default, what happens when a log file reaches its maximum file size?
A. FortiAnalyzer overwrites the log files.
B. FortiAnalyzer stops logging.
C. FortiAnalyzer rolls the active log by renaming the file.
D. FortiAnalyzer forwards logs to syslog.
Answer: C

Which two statements are true regarding high availability (HA) on FortiAnalyzer? (Choose two.)
A. FortiAnalyzer HA can function without VRRP. and VRRP is required only if you have more than two FortiAnalyzer devices in a cluster.
B. FortiAnalyzer HA supports synchronization of logs as well as some system and configuration settings.
C. All devices in a FortiAnalyzer HA cluster must run in the same operation mode: analyzer or collector.
D. FortiAnalyzer HA implementation is supported by many public cloud infrastructures such as AWS, Microsoft Azure, and Google Cloud.
Answer: B,C

Which two constraints can impact the amount of reserved disk space required by FortiAnalyzer? (Choose two.)
A. License type
B. Disk size
C. Total quota
D. RAID level
Answer: BD

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What event occurs on iLO when an HPE ProLiant server is added to HPE OneView?
A. IPMI credentials are configured for the iLO
B. REST API plugin is enabled for iLO
C. Active Directory configuration is performed on iLO
D. SSO certificate is added to the iLO
Answer: B

You try to add an HPE Primera array to HPE OneView, but you get a connectivity error. However, you can connect to the array using SSMC. What should you verify before adding HPE Primera to HPE OneView?
A. whether WSAPI service is enabled on HPE Primera array.
B. whether the appropriate license for HPE Primera Is available in HPE OneView.
C. whether array management using HPE OneView is enabled in SSMC.
D. whether there are at least two Fibre Channel networks defined in HPE OneView.
Answer: A

Your customer has an environment with five HPE Synergy Composers and 15 HPE OneView appliances managing servers that run VMware. The customer is having a hard time managing their servers. What can the customer do to simplify management of this complex environment?
A. deploy HPE OneView for VMware vCenter Server
B. deploy HPE OneView Global Dashboard
C. use an Ansible playbook
D. integrate all HPE OneView appliances and HPE Composers with Active Directory
Answer: A

Which statement regarding HPE OneView backup restore is true?
A. During backup restore, users with Administrator privileges can still login to HPE OneView
B. An HPE OneView backup can be used to restore individual components like server profile
C. Users with Backup Administrator privileges can restore an HPE OneView backup
D. Only users with Infrastructure Administrator privileges can restore an HPE OneView backup
Answer: D

Which components require an HPE OneView license for management?
A. HPE Virtual Connect modules
B. HPE Apollo XL 170r
C. Brocade and Cisco SAN Manager
D. HPE Primera and HPE 3PAR
Answer: A

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You are a Customer Data Platform Specialist. The marketing team wants to send personalized marketing emails to customers, but the customer FullName attribute has not been correctly populated as part of the profile unification process. You update the Map process to include the loyalty.member.fullname, ecom.member.fullname, and cclubcust.member.full_name fields. Then, you map the fields to the Person.FullName semantic type. Audience insights automatically merges these fields into the FullName attribute on the Merge page. What action should you perform to make sure the merged FullName field contains the most trusted data available?
A. Edit the merged FullName field and combine fields by most recent based on timestamp in the source entity.
B. Edit the merged FullName field and combine fields by least recent based on timestamp in the source entity.
C. Separate the fields in the merged FullName field, create a new field, and add attributes in priority order.
D. Edit the merged FullName field, combine fields by importance, and manually rank the source entities.
Answer: D

You are a Customer Data Platform Specialist. The marketing team requested that customer cellphone numbers be added to the customer profile in audience insights. The customer cellphone numbers are stored in a separate table in the Azure Gen 2 Storage Account. You decide to create the data source(s) needed in audience insights. Which statements best describes the steps needed to ingest the required data to audience insights?
A. In audience insights, under Data, select Data Sources, add data source and select Azure data lake storage as an import method, enter name as "Loyalty Cell Phone' and enter storage account name to authenticate. Repeat the steps for other tables.
B. In audience insights, select Data Sources, add data source, enter "CellPhone" in the name field and click Next.
C. In audience insights, add data source and select Azure data lake storage as an import method, enter "cellPhoneJoyalty1 as a data source name, and then enter the container name and method to authenticate. Repeat the same steps for other tables.
D. In audience insights, add data source and select Microsoft Dataverse as an import method, enter "CellPhoneloyalty" as a data source name.
Answer: C

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Microsoft DP-203 questions and answers

 

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You plan to build a structured streaming solution in Azure Databricks. The solution will count new events in five-minute intervals and report only events that arrive during the interval. The output will be sent to a Delta Lake table. Which output mode should you use?
A. complete
B. update
C. append
Answer: C

You have a SQL pool in Azure Synapse. A user reports that queries against the pool take longer than expected to complete. You need to add monitoring to the underlying storage to help diagnose the issue. Which two metrics should you monitor? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Cache used percentage
B. DWU Limit
C. Snapshot Storage Size
D. Active queries
E. Cache hit percentage
Answer: A,E

You have an Azure Synapse Analytics dedicated SQL pool. You need to ensure that data in the pool is encrypted at rest. The solution must NOT require modifying applications that query the data. What should you do?
A. Enable encryption at rest for the Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 account.
B. Enable Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) for the pool.
C. Use a customer-managed key to enable double encryption for the Azure Synapse workspace.
D. Create an Azure key vault in the Azure subscription grant access to the pool.
Answer: B

You have an Azure Synapse Analystics dedicated SQL pool that contains a table named Contacts. Contacts contains a column named Phone. You need to ensure that users in a specific role only see the last four digits of a phone number when querying the Phone column. What should you include in the solution?
A. a default value
B. dynamic data masking
C. row-level security (RLS)
D. column encryption
E. table partitions
Answer: B

You have an Azure Data Lake Storage Gen2 container that contains 100 TB of data. You need to ensure that the data in the container is available for read workloads in a secondary region if an outage occurs in the primary region. The solution must minimize costs. Which type of data redundancy should you use?
A. zone-redundant storage (ZRS)
B. read-access geo-redundant storage (RA-GRS)
C. locally-redundant storage (LRS)
D. geo-redundant storage (GRS)
Answer: B

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Which service provides serverless computing in Azure?
A. Azure Virtual Machines
B. Azure Container instances
C. Azure Functions
D. Azure storage account
Answer: C

Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains 5,000 user accounts. Your company plans to migrate all network resources to Azure and to decommission the on-premises data center. You need to recommend a solution to minimize the impact on users after the planned migration. What should you recommend?
A. Implement Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
B. Sync all the Active Directory user accounts to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
C. Instruct all users to change their password
D. Create a guest user account in Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) for each user
Answer: B

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. When planning to migrate a public website to Azure, you must plan to pay monthly usage costs.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Deploy a VPN
C. pay to transfer all the website data to Azure
D. reduce the number of connections to the website
Answer: A

Your company hosts an accounting named App1 that is used by all the customers of the company.App1 has low usage during the first three weeks of each month and very high usage during the last week of each month. Which benefit of Azure Cloud Services supports cost management for this type of usage pattern?
A. high availability
B. high latency
C. elasticity
D. load balancing
Answer: C

You plan to deploy several Azure virtual machines. You need to control the ports that devices on the internet can use to access the virtual machines. What should you use?
A. an Azure Active Directory (AzureAD) role
B. an Azure key vault
C. an Azure Active Directory group
D. a network security group (NSG)
Answer: D

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