VMware 3V0-22.21N Exam Success Story

 I am thrilled to share that I recently passed the VMware 3V0-22.21N exam with outstanding results! This exam evaluates the knowledge and skills of professionals in VMware virtualization, covering a wide range of topics such as virtual networking, storage, security, and management through multiple-choice questions.

My Exam Preparation Approach

To excel in the exam, I followed a well-structured study plan. I began by thoroughly reviewing the official VMware documentation and studying recommended reference materials. Additionally, I utilized online resources like practice exams and study guides to further deepen my understanding of the exam objectives.

Overcoming the Challenge of Online Questions

An intriguing aspect of the VMware 3V0-22.21N exam was the inclusion of online questions. These questions required me to apply my knowledge to real-world scenarios and troubleshoot virtualization issues. It truly tested my practical skills and critical thinking abilities in a virtualized environment.

Tips for Excelling in the 3V0-22.21N Exam

Based on my experience, here are some valuable tips that can help you excel in the VMware 3V0-22.21N exam:

1. Understand the exam objectives: Familiarize yourself with the exam blueprint and ensure you have a solid grasp of each topic.
2. Gain hands-on experience: Engage in practical projects or set up your own lab environment to gain real-world experience with VMware virtualization. This will enhance your understanding of the concepts and boost your confidence during the exam.
3. Practice with online questions: Utilize online 3V0-22.21N practice exams and simulated environments to get comfortable with the format and the unique challenges posed by the online questions. This will help you develop effective strategies for tackling them.
4. Manage your time effectively: Allocate sufficient time to read each question carefully and answer the online questions effectively. Planning your time wisely during the exam is crucial.

Passing the VMware 3V0-22.21N exam was a remarkable milestone in my professional journey. It required a combination of theoretical knowledge, practical experience, and effective preparation strategies.

If you are planning to take the VMware 3V0-22.21N exam, I hope that my experience and tips have provided you with valuable insights. Remember to stay focused, engage in hands-on practice, and approach the exam with confidence.

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Which two statements about the FortiEDR solution are true? (Choose two.)
A. It provides pre-infection and post-infection protection
B. It is Windows OS only
C. It provides central management
D. It provides pant-to-point protection
Answer: A,C

FortiXDR relies on which feature as part of its automated extended response?
A. Playbooks
B. Security Policies
C. Forensic
D. Communication Control
Answer: A

Which two types of remote authentication does the FortiEDR management console support? (Choose two.)
A. Radius
B. SAML
C. TACACS
D. LDAP
Answer: B,D

An administrator finds a third party free software on a user's computer mat does not appear in me application list in the communication control console. Which two statements are true about this situation? (Choose two)
A. The application is allowed in all communication control policies
B. The application is ignored as the reputation score is acceptable by the security policy
C. The application has not made any connection attempts
D. The application is blocked by the security policies
Answer: C,D

An administrator needs to restrict access to the ADMINISTRATION tab inthe central manager for a specific account. What role should the administrator assign to this account?
A. Admin
B. User
C. Local Admin
D. REST API
Answer: B

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An organization's owner has invited a new user to consume VMware Cloud Services. How long is the invitation valid before it is revoked?
A. 1 hour
B. 3 days
C. 7 days
D. 24 hours
Answer: C

What are the two required components of an alert definition? (Choose two.)
A. Symptom
B. Version
C. Node
D. Action
E. Recommendation
Answer: A,D

An administrator needs to manage a vRealize Operations cluster using the Admin UI. Which two actions are possible? (Choose two.)
A. Deploying a new vRealize Operations node OVA
B. Uploading and installing vRealize Operations PAK files
C. Activating a vRealize Operations native management pack
D. Enabling or disabling high availability for the vRealize Operations cluster
E. Configuring a DNS server on the vRealize Operations nodes
Answer: A,D

What is the purpose of the self-provider option within the dashboard definition?
A. If Refresh Content is enabled, it will specify how often to refresh the data in the widget display.
B. It can create a custom set of metrics to support widgets with meaningful data.
C. It enables or disables the automatic refreshing of the data in the widget display.
D. It indicates whether objects appearing in the widget are defined in the widget or are provided by another widget source.
Answer: D

Which regulatory, standards-based compliance pack is available in vRealize Operations?
A. Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX)
B. Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE)
C. CIS Security Standards
D. General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
Answer: C

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Who has the final decision about the order of items in the Product Backlog?
A. The Stakeholders.
B. The Scrum Team.
C. The Product Owner.
D. The Scrum Master.
E. The Developers.
Answer: C

While developing new functionality you find a bug that has already been delivered to the customer. What do you do?
A. Revise the tests so that the bug no longer appears on the bug report.
B. Stub out the code that caused the bug so it no longer occurs.
C. Fix the bug.
D. Talk to the Product Owner.
Answer: D

In what ways do Developers contribute to refining the Product Backlog?
A. They may update estimates for Product Backlog Items.
B. They ask questions in order to clarify the intent of Product Backlog Items.
C. They do not. The Developers are only responsible for prioritizing technical work.
D. They give input on technical dependencies.
E. They do not. The Scrum Master and the Product Owner are responsible for Product Backlog Refinement.
Answer: A,B,D

What are some disadvantages of Code Coverages as a measurement for how well a system or Product is tested? (choose best three answers)
A. Developers could stop adding more valuable tests once the target coverage is achieved.
B. It does not ensure that the most important or highest risk areas of the code are being exercised by the tests.
C. It only provide insights for programmers.
D. It is too complicated to explain to Management.
E. It could create incentives to write tests that simply increase Code Coverage rather than tests that find bugs without increasing coverage.
Answer: A,B,E

What is Test First Development (TFD)?
A. The continuous restructuring of Software to retain flexibility.
B. Testing existing code before adding more code to it.
C. Creating tests before satisfying them.
D. Having the Tester in the Scrum Team write the test plans before coding.
Answer: C

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2023 Juniper JNCIS-SEC JN0-335 questions and answers

 

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Which two statements are correct about a policy scheduler? (Choose two)
A. A policy scheduler can be defined using a daily schedule.
B. A policy scheduler can be dynamically activated based on traffic flow volumes.
C. A policy scheduler can only be applied when using the policy-rematch feature
D. A policy scheduler determines the time frame that a security policy is actively evaluated.
Answer:AB

Which two statements are true about the vSRX? (Choose two.)
A. OpenStack is not supported as a cloud orchestration solution.
B. AWS is supported as an laaS solution
C. AWS is not supported as an laaS solution.
D. OpenStack is supported as a cloud orchestration solution
Answer:BC

Regarding dynamic attack object groups, which two statements are true 2 (Choose two)
A. Group membership does not automatically change when Juniper updates the IPS signature database
B. Group membership automatically changes when Juniper updates the IPS signature database
C. You must manually add matching attack objects to a custom group.
D. Matching attack objects are automatically added to a custom group.
Answer:CD

Which two statements are correct about the fab interface in a chassis cluster? (Choose two.)
A. Heartbeat signals sent on the fab interface monitor the health of the control plane link
B. The fab interface enables configuration synchronization
C. Real-time objects (RTOs) are exchanged on the fab interface to maintain session synchronization
D. In an active/active configuration inter-chassis transit traffic is sent over the fab interface
Answer:CD

You want to deploy a virtualized SRX in your environment. In this scenario, why would you use a vSRX instead of a CSRX? (Choose two.)
A. The vSRX has faster boot times.
B. Only the vSRX provides NAT, IPS, and UTM services.
C. The vSRX supports Layer 2 and Layer 3 configurations
D. Only the SRX provides clustering
Answer:AC

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DELL EMC DCS-IE DES-4122 pdf dumps

 

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A technician installs eight servers into a fully operational rack with top of rack switch Each server has a quad 1Gb NIC and redundant power supplies. The company uses iDRAC in shared LOM mode with LOM1 as the selected NIC. What should the technician do to verify iDRAC connectivity on each server?
A. iDRAC Datacenter license is installed.
B. Ethernet port LOM1 is cabled and the link light is green.
C. iDRAC dedicated NIC port is cabled and the link light is green
D. iDRAC Enterprise license is installed
Answer: B

What is a characteristic of SupportAssist Enterprise on Dell EMC PowerEdge 14G servers?
A. Used for customers that want monitoring of fewer than 1,000 server, storage, and networking devices
B. Dispatches technical support from Dell for all Dell servers, storage, and networking devices
C. Proactive, predictive, and automated support technology to enable faster resolution and reporting
D. Includes onsite monitoring and automated collection of system state information
Answer: C

A Dell EMC PowerEdge server logs the following CPU Machine Check error CPU1 IERR. What action might solve the problem?
A. Remove flea power
B. Update the Intel driver
C. Reseat the IDSDM
D. Swap the PERC controller
Answer: A

A Dell EMC PowerEdge 14G server uses Intel OPTANE DC Persistent Memory in App Direct mode. What is the minimum size DIMM supported for this type of memory?
A. 64 GB
B. 128 GB
C. 256 GB
D. 512 GB
Answer: B

A company that has very specific firmware requirements has acquired Dell EMC PowerEdge servers Any replaced parts of the type must match the original parts identically. The procedure must be as simple as possible with minimal risk. What action should a technician take to help accomplish this goal?
A. Configure servers to access the remote firmware repository
B. Enable the Match Firmware of Replaced Part setting in the system BIOS
C. Install and configure a repository manager
D. Enable the Collect System Inventory On Restart (CSIOR) attribute
Answer: B

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Full synchronization between cluster members is handled by Firewall Kernel. Which port is used for this?
A. UDP port 265
B. TCP port 265
C. UDP port 256
D. TCP port 256
Answer: D

Which of the SecureXL templates are enabled by default on Security Gateway?
A. Accept
B. Drop
C. NAT
D. None
Answer: D

What is not a component of Check Point SandBlast?
A. Threat Emulation
B. Threat Simulator
C. Threat Extraction
D. Threat Cloud
Answer: B

Fill in the blank: The command ___________________ provides the most complete restoration of a R81 configuration.
A. upgrade_import
B. cpconfig
C. fwm dbimport -p
D. cpinfo –recover
Answer: A

Check Pont Central Deployment Tool (CDT) communicates with the Security Gateway / Cluster Members over Check Point SIC _______ .
A. TCP Port 18190
B. TCP Port 18209
C. TCP Port 19009
D. TCP Port 18191
Answer: D​

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An administrator has a 32-node hybrid cluster with CPU, RAM and storage utilization of 80%. A database VM is configured with VM Flash. What is causing this IO latency?
A. VM Flash Mode reduces SSD tier capacity for VMs.
B. Database VM is experiencing high CPU ready time.
C. Curator scans causes by ILM constantly moving data.
D. Controller VM is experiencing high CPU ready time.
Answer: D

An Administrator needs to provide users access to prism Central Projects. What Source of user accounts must the administrator Use?
A. Active Directory
B. SAML2 Provider
C. Local Users
D. Open LDAP
Answer: A

An Administrator Wants a VM to Communicate with two Separate VLANs. What steps should the administrator complete?
A. Add two NICs to the VM and Configure one for each VLAN
B. Turn on IPAM for auto configuration of VLANs
C. Add a single NIC to the VM and Configure it for both VLANs
D. Configure a security Policy to assign VLANs to the VM
Answer: A

An administrator needs to upgrade AOS for an air gapped cluster by using Prism Element. Which two actions allow the administrator to perform the upgrade? Choose Two
A. Extract the AOS binaries to the CVM
B. Use the LCM dark site Option Providing AOS Binaries
C. Manually Upload AOS binaries and metadata
D. Manually Upload Binaries to a local http server
Answer: B,C

An administrator is trying to correct high cluster IOPs and Cluster Controller Latency. Networking is the suspected issue. Which networking parameters should be configured in the Nutanix cluster?
A. Number of NICs connected and network latency.
B. Number of NICs connected and frame size
C. Bond State and network latency
D. Number of NICs connected and bond state.
Answer: B

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Vmware 2V0-33.22 Exam Demo

Which two use cases can be met with VMware Cloud on Dell EMC and VMware Cloud on AWS Outposts? (Choose two.)
A. Administrator rights in SDDC Manager to configure and operate the solution
B. Ability to create public services
C. Applications needing local data processing and/or low latency integrations
D. Critical workloads that use restricted data
E. On demand rapid scalability
Answer: A,C

A cloud administrator is planning to migrate 1,000 VMs from their existing on-premises location into VMware Cloud on AWS. The migration will need to be completed as quickly as possible. Upon completion, the users will need the most reliable, lowest latency connection possible. Which on-premises data center connectivity option will meet these requirements?
A. Layer 2 VPN
B. AWS Direct Connect
C. VMware Transit Connect
D. IPsec VPN
Answer: B

Which two Tanzu Kubernetes Grid service component must an administrator configure within VMware Cloud to enable to deploy a namespace or their Kubernetes Application developments? (Choose two)
A. Tanzu Service Mesh
B. Tanzu Application Platform
C. Tanzu Kubernetes Cluster
D. Management cluster
E. Tanzu Observability by Wavefront
Answer: B,C

Which logical switching component provides layer 2 forwarding functionality in a VMware Cloud software-defined data center (SDDC).
A. Segment port
B. Uplink
C. N-VDS/VDS
D. Transport node
Answer: A

Which types of networks are available when creating a segment in VMware Cloud on AWS?
A. Routed, Extended, Disconnected
B. Advertised, Extended, Isolated
C. Routed, Stretched, Disconnected
D. Advertised, Stretched, Isolated
Answer: A

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